The Huns
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Post from iGENEA to 29.06.2010 09:06:33
Dear Srbin
almost all modern nations consist of different ancient tribes, therefore every modern nation on the Balkans has partially illyrian roots.
What we do is science and genetics. Of course it is sometimes hard to link with history, but genetic evidence cant be correct or wring, it is just there and we have to adapt it to our historical knowledge and sometimes we have to come to the conclusion that historical knowledge is wrong.
Of course it is possible, that some Albanians came from the Caucasus but there is not a big difference between modern Albanians and surrounding nations, which means that this caucasian influence was minor or affected other tribes of the Balkans also.
Modern Southslavs are a mixture of indigenous Balkan peoples and slavic peoples who came there about 1.500 years ago.
Although i dont know which nations you call "Southslavs" because usually Croatians are also called Southslavs as they speak a slavic language.
When we talk of Slavs we do not talk of modern day Slavs but of the ancient slavic tribe referring to the time before they spread out to the Balkans.
Roman C. Scholz
iGENEA
info@igenea.com
www.igenea.com
Post from SRBIN to 28.06.2010 17:06:48
DEAR iGENEA
I have nausea when I see your lies!
Southslavs are indigenous, modern Macedonians and Ancient Macedonians are same nation, Serbs and Illyrians are same, Albanians are not Illyrians, they have come from Caucasus!
Croatians are descendants of Avars and they do not have any link with Southslavs (Serbs)
See what have written my good friend Lexandar Srbljanin:
http://www.igenea.com/index.php?content=132&st=452
And please DO NOT EMPTY OUR BRAINS!
Post from Djuro to 10.04.2010 19:04:12
Dear Macedonia,
To answer your question:
1. The Huns were a warrior tribe and it is possible that during all the pillaging and slaughtering, they raped the local women who got pregnant.(They did do it, quite frequently.)
2. Most of the Hunnic population in Hungary probably died during the plague.
I hope I answered your question
Post from ahddub to 16.06.2009 15:06:06
Greetings! I didn't see the uralic N3 marker in hungarians! these mutation the uralic, and I see we are finno-ungrers in 30% Finno ugrers were the aborigines in Carpathians? Becouse I see R1a, R1b, I2a, e3b, j2 markers. Which "combo" is the finno-ugrer?
Regards!
Post from iGENEA to 06.03.2009 14:03:51
Yes of course. This is one reason of not beeing able nowadays to find some roots.
Inma Pazos
iGENEA
info@igenea.com
www.igenea.com
Post from Milos to 06.03.2009 14:03:25
Can it be possible that the descendants of some tribes died during plague epidemic, because of weaker immunity for such disease, as South-american tribes after contacting Europeans?
Post from iGENEA to 02.12.2008 11:12:30
The name of a country doesn't mean this country have the same roots. See the examples in Croatia or Serbia. These names come from the slavic group of the Croatians and Serbians, who arrived around the 6th. century, but not all Croatian or Serbians have slavic roots.
The first habitants in Hungary were Finno-Ugrer (Ugurians9, Magyarian, Skyths, Celts and later came Sarmatians, Huns, Germanic tribes, Awarians and Slavs. So, also if Hungary became his name from the Huns, not all habitants have huns roots.
In addition there are a lot of countries, where we don't find the roots, which are historically described. We also don't have celtic roots in Austria, although celtic tribes were here.
There are different reasons for the absence of roots today:
- Lines die: It is possible the descendant of this tribes die before they could inherit their genetic roots
- Wars and nature catastrophes conduct to a big death rate of tribes
- These roots represent a minority nowadays and haven't been discored in the different studies
Inma Pazos
iGENEA
info@igenea.com
www.igenea.com
Post from Macedonia to 01.12.2008 19:12:03
I see there is 5% Hunnic heritage in Macedonia. I'm fund that there is a small Hunnic heritage in Europe as the Huns came mainly as conquerers and not settlers, although please explain how there i 5% Hunnic heritage in Macedonia and zero in Hungary.
Hungary, that area was given by the Romans to the Huns to settle as a gesture of friendship, so I truly should expect Hunnic heritage in Hungary and other European nations. If Macedonia have 5%, then Hungary should have much more as that area was settled by the Huns. But I see they have zero.
So how can igenea explain that based on history knowledge, archeology findings and genetic?
Please also consider that Hungary is named by the Huns, as Hun...., and also Bulgaria which was named by the Hun Bulgars.